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COMBINED DEFENCE SERVICES EXAMINATION (II)-2022
[INCLUDING SSC WOMEN (NON-TECHNICAL) COURSE]

CONDITIONS OF ELIGIBILITY:

(a) Nationality: A candidate must be unmarried and must either be:

(i) a Citizen of India, or
(ii) a subject of Nepal, or
(iii) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka and East African Countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia or Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India. Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii) and (iii) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India. Certificate of eligibility will, however, not be necessary in the case of candidates who are Gorkha subjects of Nepal. A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted to the examination provisionally subject to the necessary certificate being given to him/her by the Govt. before declaration of result by UPSC.

(b) Age Limits, Sex and Marital Status :

(i) For IMA—Unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd July, 1999 and not later than 1st July, 2004 only are eligible.
(ii) For Indian Naval Academy—Unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd July, 1999 and not later than 1st July, 2004 only are eligible.
(iii) For Air Force Academy— 20 to 24 years as on 1st July, 2023 i.e. born not earlier than 2nd July, 1999 and not later than 1st July, 2003 (Upper age limit for candidates holding valid and current Commercial Pilot Licence issued by DGCA (India) is relaxable upto 26 yrs. i.e. born not earlier than 2nd July, 1997 and not later than 1st July, 2003 only are eligible.
Note: Candidate below 25 years of age must be unmarried. Marriage is not permitted during training. Married candidates above 25 years of age are eligible to apply but during training period they will neither be provided married accommodation nor can they live with family out of the premises.
(iv) For Officers’ Training Academy—(SSC Course for men) unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd July, 1998 and not later than 1st July, 2004 only are eligible.
(v) For Officers’ Training Academy—(SSC Women Non-Technical Course) Unmarried women, issueless widows who have not remarried and issueless divorcees (in possession of divorce documents) who have not remarried are eligible. They should have been born not earlier than 2nd July, 1998 and not later than 1st July, 2004.

NOTE : Male divorcee/widower candidates cannot be treated as unmarried male for the purpose of their admission in IMA/INA/AFA/OTA, Chennai courses and accordingly they are not eligible for these courses. The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates maintained by a University, which extract must be certified by the proper authority of the University or in the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination or an equivalent examination certificate. These certificates are required to be submitted only after the declaration of the result of the written part of the examination. No other document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporation, service records and the like will be accepted. The expression Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate in this part of the instruction includes the alternative certificates mentioned above. Sometimes the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate does not show the date of birth, or only shows the age by completed years or completed years and months. In such cases a candidate must send in addition to the self attested/certified copy of Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate a self attested/certified copy of a certificate from the eadmaster/Principal of the Institution from where he/she passed the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination showing the date of his/her birth or exact age as recorded in the Admission Register of the Institution.
NOTE 1 : Candidates should note that only the Date of Birth as recorded in the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate or an equivalent certificate on the date of submission of applications will be accepted by the Commission and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted.
NOTE 2 : Candidates should also note that once a Date of Birth has been claimed by them and entered in the records of the Commission for the purpose of admission to an Examination, no change will be allowed subsequently or at a subsequent examination on any ground whatsoever. Provided that in case of an inadvertent/ unintentional/typographical error committed by a candidate in indicating the date of birth in the Online Application Form, the candidate may make a request to the Commission for subsequent rectification along with supporting documents, as specified in the Rule 2 (b) of the Examination Rules and the request may be considered by the Commission, if the same is made latest by the date of the Combined Defence Services Examination (II), 2022 which is 04.09.2022.

All communication in this regard should contain the following particulars:-

1. NAME AND YEAR OF THE EXAMINATION.
2. REGISTRATION I.D. (RID.).
3. ROLL NUMNBER (IF RECEIVED)
4. NAME OF CANDIDATE (IN FULL AND IN BLOCK LETTERS).
5. COMPLETE POSTAL ADDRESS AS GIVEN IN THE APPLICATION.
6. VALID AND ACTIVCE EMAIL ID.

NOTE 3 : The candidates should exercise due care while entering their date of birth. If on verification at any subsequent stage any variation is found in their date of birth from the one entered in their Matriculation or equivalent examination certificate, disciplinary action will be taken against them by the Commission under the Rules.

Educational Qualifications:

(i) For I.M.A. and Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai — Degree of a recognised University or equivalent.
(ii) For Indian Naval Academy— Degree in Engineering from a recognised University/Institution
(iii) For Air Force Academy—Degree of a recognised University (with Physics and Mathematics at 10+2 level) or Bachelor of Engineering. Graduates with first choice as Army/Navy/Air Force are to submit proof of Graduation/provisional certificates on the date of commencement of the SSB Interview at the SSB.
Candidates who are studying in the final year/semester Degree course and have yet to pass the final year degree examination can also apply provided candidate should not have any present backlog upto the last semester / year for which results have been declared upto the time of submission of application and they will be required to submit proof of passing the degree examination at the time of commencement of course to reach the IHQ of MoD (Army), Rtg ‘A’, CDSE Entry, West Block III, R. K. Puram, New Delhi-110066 in case of IMA/SSC first choice candidates and Naval HQ “DMPR” (OI & R Section), Room No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhawan, New Delhi-110011 in case of Navy first choice candidates and PO3(A)/Air Headquarters, ‘J’ Block, Room No. 17, Opp. Vayu Bhawan, Motilal Nehru Marg, New Delhi-110 106 in case of Air Force first choice candidates by the following dates failing which their candidature will stand cancelled :
(i) For admission to IMA on or before 1st July, 2023, Indian Naval Academy on or before 1st July, 2023 and Air Force Academy on or before 13th May, 2023.
(ii) For admission to Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai on or before 1st October, 2023. Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications which are recognised by government as equivalent to professional and technical degrees would also be eligible for admission to the examination. In exceptional cases the Commission may treat a candidate, who does not possess any of the qualifications prescribed in this rule as educationally qualified provided that he/she possesses qualifications, the standard of which in the opinion of the Commission, justifies his/her admission to the examination.
NOTE I : Candidates, who have yet to pass their degree examination will be eligible only if they are studying in the final year of degree examination. Those candidates who have yet to qualify in the final year Degree Examination and are allowed to appear in the UPSC Examination should note that this is only a special concession given to them. They are required to submit proof of passing the Degree Examination by the prescribed date and no request for extending this date will be entertained on the grounds of late conduct of basic qualifying University Examination, delay in declaration of results or any other ground whatsoever.
Candidates who are studying in the final year/semester degree course are required to submit at the time of SSB interview a bonafide certificate issued by University/College stating that they will be able to submit their proof of passing the graduation degree examination by the specified date, failing which their candidature will be cancelled.
NOTE II : Candidates who are debarred by the Ministry of Defence from holding any type of commission in the Defence Services shall not be eligible for admission to the examination and if admitted, their candidature will be cancelled.
NOTE III : In the event of Air Force candidates being suspended from Flying training for failure to learn flying, they would be absorbed in the Navigation/Ground Duty (Non Tech) Branches of the IAF. This will be subject to availability of vacancies and fulfilling the laid down qualitative requirements.

Physical Standards:

Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards for admission to Combined Defence Services Examination (II), 2022 as per guidelines given in Appendix-IV

FEE

Candidates (excepting Female/SC/ST candidates who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay a fee of Rs. 200/- (Rupees Two Hundred Only) either by depositing the money in any Branch of SBI by cash, or by using Visa/Master/Rupay Credit/Debit Card/UPI Payment or by using internet banking facility of any Bank.

HOW TO APPLY:

Candidates are required to apply Online using the link www.upsconline.nic.in Detailed instructions for filling up Online Applications are available on the abovementioned website.
The applicants are advised to submit only single application; however if due to any unavoidable situation, if he/she submits another/multiple applications, then he/she must ensure that application with the higher RID (Registration ID) is complete in all respects like applicants’ details, examination centre, photograph, signature, fee etc.
The applicants who are submitting multiple applications should note that only the applications with higher RID (Registration ID) shall be entertained by the Commission and fee paid against one RID shall not be adjusted against any other RID.
All candidates whether already in Government Service including candidates serving in the Armed Forces, Government owned industrial undertakings or other similar organizations or in private employment should submit their applications online direct to the Commission.
N.B.I: Persons already in Government Service, whether in permanent or temporary capacity or as work charged employees other than casual or daily rated employees or those serving under the Public Enterprises are, however, required to inform their Head of Office/Department in writing that they have applied for the Examination.
N.B.II: Candidates serving in the Armed Forces are required to inform their Commanding Officer in writing that they have applied for this examination. They are also required to submit NOC in this regard at the time of SSB interview.
Candidates should note that in case a communication is received from their employer by the Commission withholding permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the examination, their applications will be liable to be rejected/candidatures will be liable to be cancelled.

SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

1. The Competitive examination comprises:
- (a) Written examination as shown in para 2 below.
- (b) Interview for intelligence and personality test (vide Part ‘B’ of this Appendix) of such candidates as may be called for interview at one of the Services Selection Centres.

2. The subjects of the written examination, the time allowed and the maximum marks allotted to each subject will be as follows:

(a) For Admission to Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy and Air Force Academy:—

Subject	Code	Duration	Maximum Marks
English	11	2 Hours	100
General Knowledge	12	2 Hours	100
Elementary Mathematics	13	2 Hours	100

(a) For Admission to Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy and Air Force Academy:—

Subject Code Duration Maximum Marks

English 11 2 Hours 100

General Knowledge 12 2 Hours 100

The maximum marks allotted to the written examination and to the interviews will be equal for each course i.e. the maximum marks allotted to the written examination and to the interviews will be 300, 300, 300 and 200 each for admission to the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy and Officers’ Training Academy respectively.

3. The papers in all the subjects will consist of objective type questions only. The question papers (Test Booklets) of General Knowledge and Elementary Mathematicswill be set bilingually in Hindi as well as English.
4. In the question papers, wherever necessary, questions involving the metric system of Weights and Measures only will be set.
5. Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed the help of a scribe to write answers for them.
6. The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects of the examination.
7. The candidates are not permitted to use calculator for answering objective type papers (Test Booklets). They should not therefore, bring the same inside theExamination Hall.

SYLLABUS OF THE CDS EXAMINATION:

English	01		The question paper will be designed to test the candidates’ understanding of English and workmanlike use of words.
General Knowledge	02		General Knowledge including knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person who has not made a special study of any scientific subject. The paper will also include questions on History of India and Geography of a nature which candidate should be able to answer without special study.
Elementary Mathematics	03	ARITHMETIC	Number System—Natural numbers, Integers, Rational and Real numbers. Fundamental operations, addition, substraction, multiplication, division, Square roots, Decimal fractions. Unitary method, time and distance, time and work, percentages, applications to simple and compound interest, profit and loss, ratio and proportion, variation. Elementary Number Theory—Division algorithm. Prime and composite numbers. Tests of divisibility by 2, 3, 4, 5, 9 and 11. Multiples and factors. Factorisation Theorem. H.C.F. and L.C.M. Euclidean algorithm. Logarithms to base 10, laws oflogarithms, use of logarithmic tables.
		ALGEBRA	Basic Operations, simple factors, Remainder Theorem, H.C.F., L.C.M., Theory of polynomials, solutions of quadratic equations, relation between its roots and coefficients (Only real roots to be considered). Simultaneous linear equations in two unknowns—analytical and graphical solutions. Simultaneous linear inequations in two variables and their solutions. Practical problems leading to two simultaneous linear equations or inequations in two variables or quadratic equations in one variable & their solutions. Set language and set notation, Rational expressions and conditional identities, Laws of indices.
		TRIGONOMETRY	Sine ×, cosine ×, Tangent × when 0° × 90° Values of sin ×, cos × and tan ×, for ×= 0°, 30°, 45°, 60° and 90° Simple trigonometric identities.Use of trigonometric tables. Simple cases of heights and distances.
		GEOMETRY	Lines and angles, Plane and plane figures, Theorems on (i) Properties of angles at a point, (ii) Parallel lines, (iii) Sides and angles of a triangle, (iv) Congruency of triangles, (v) Similar triangles, (vi) Concurrence of medians and altitudes, (vii) Properties of angles, sides and diagonals of a parallelogram, rectangle and square, (viii) Circles and its properties including tangents and normals, (ix) Loci.
		MENSURATION	Areas of squares, rectangles, parallelograms, triangle and circle. Areas of figures which can be split up into these figures (Field Book), Surface area and volume of uboids, lateral surface and volume of right circular cones and cylinders, surface area and volume of spheres.
		STATISTICS	Collection and tabulation of statistical data, Graphical representation frequency polygons, histograms, bar charts, pie charts etc. Measures of central tendency.
		INTELLIGENCE AND PERSONALITY TEST	The SSB procedure consists of two stage Selection process – stage I and stage II. Only those candidates who clear the stage I are permitted to appear for stage II. The details are:- (a) Stage I comprises of Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) tests are Picture Perception* Description Test (PP&DT). The candidates will be shortlisted based on combination of performance in OIR Test and PP&DT. (b) Stage II Comprises of Interview, Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology Tests and the Conference. These tests are conducted over 4 days. The details of these tests are given on the website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in. The personality of a candidate is assessed by three different assessors viz. The Interviewing Officer (IO), Group Testing Officer (GTO) and the Psychologist. There are no separate weightage for each test. The marks are allotted by assessors only after taking into consideration the performance of the candidate holistically in all the test. In addition, marks for Conference are also allotted based on the initial performance of the Candidate in the three techniques and decision of the Board. All these have equal weightage. The various tests of IO, GTO and Psych are designed to bring out the presence/absence of Officer Like Qualities and their trainability in a candidate. Accordingly candidates are Recommended or Not Recommended at the SSB.

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES FOR FILLING ONLINE APPLICATION

Candidates are required to apply online by using the website www.upsconline.nic.in Salient Features of the system to Online Applications Form are given here under:

1. Detailed instructions for filling up Online Applications are available on the above mentioned website.
2. Candidates will be required to complete the Online Application form containing two stages viz. Part I and Part II as per the instructions available in the above mentioned site through drop down menu.
3. The candidates are required to pay a fee of Rs. 200/- (Rupees two hundred only) [except SC/ST candidates and those specified in Note-2 of Point 4 (Fee) of the Notice who are exempted from payment of fee] either by depositing the money in any branch of SBI by cash or by using any Visa/Master/ Rupay Credit/Debit Card/UPI Payment or by using internet banking facility of any Bank .
4. Before start filling up Online Application, a candidate must have his photograph and signature duly scanned in the .jpg format in such a manner that each file should not exceed 300 KB each and must not be less than 20 KB in size for the photograph and signature.
5. A candidate must have his Matriculation Certificate ready prior to filling up his application form. The details viz. Candidate’s Name, Father’s Name, Mother’s Name & Date of Birth to be filled in Online Application Form of the candidate should match exactly with particulars mentioned in the Matriculation Certificate.
6. In addition to this, candidate should also have details of one photo ID viz. Aadhar Card/ Voter Card/ PAN Card/ Passport/ Driving License/ Any other photo ID Card issued by the State/Central Government. The details of this photo ID will have to be provided by the candidate while filling up the online application form. The candidates will have to upload a scanned copy of the Photo ID whose details have been provided in the online application by him/her. This photo ID will be used for all future referencing and the candidate is advised to carry this ID while appearing for examination/Personality Test/SSB.
7. The Online Applications (Part I and II) can be filled from.
8. Applicants should avoid submitting multiple applications. However, if due to any unavoidable circumstances any applicant submits multiple applications then he must ensure that the applications with higher RID is complete in all respects.
9. In case of multiple applications, the applications with higher RID shall be entertained by the Commission and fee paid against one RID shall not be adjusted against any other RID.
10. The applicants must ensure that while filling their Application Form, they are providing their valid and active E-mail Ids as the Commission may use electronic mode of communication while contacting them at different stages of examination process.
11. The applicants are advised to check their e-mails at regular intervals and ensure that the email address ending with @nic.in are directed to their inbox folder and not to the SPAM folder or any other folder.
12. Candidates are strongly advised to apply online well in time without waiting for the last date for submission of online application. Moreover, the Commission has introduced provision of withdrawal of application for the candidate, who does not want to appear at the Examination, he/she may withdraw his/her application.

Special Instructions to Candidates for objective type tests

1. Articles permitted inside Examination Hall Clip board or hard board (on which nothing is written) a good quality Black Ball Pen for marking responses on the Answer Sheet. Answer Sheet and sheet for rough work will be supplied by the invigilator.
2. Articles not permitted inside Examination Hall Do not bring into the Examination Hall any article other than those specified above e.g. books, notes, loose sheets, electronic or any other type of calculators, mathematical and drawing instruments, Log Tables, stencils of maps, slide rules, Test Booklets and rough sheets pertaining to earlier session(s) etc.
Mobiles, phones, Bluetooth, pagers or any other communication devices are not allowed inside the premises where the examination is being conducted. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action including ban from future examinations.
Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned items including mobile phones/Bluetooth/pagers to the venue of the examination, as arrangements for safekeeping cannot be assured. Candidates are advised not to bring any valuable/costly items to the Examination Halls, as safe keeping of the same cannot be assured. Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.
3. Penalty for wrong Answers THERE WILL BE PENALTY (NEGATIVE MARKING) FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate. One third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate given more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above for that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
4. Unfair means strictly prohibited No candidate shall copy from the papers of any other candidate nor permit his papers to be copied nor give nor attempt to give nor obtain nor attempt to obtain irregular assistance of any description.
5. Conduct in Examination Hall No candidate should misbehave in any manner or create disorderly scene in the Examination Hall or harass the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of the examination. Any such misconduct will be severely penalised.
6. Answer Sheet particulars
(i) Write with Black ball pen your Centre and subject followed by test booklet series (in bracket), subject code and roll number at the appropriate space provided on the answer sheet at the top. Also encode your booklet series (A, B, C, or D as the case may be), subject code and roll number in the circles provided for the purpose in the answer sheet. The guidelines for writing the above particulars and for encoding the above particulars are given in Annexure. In case the booklet series is not printed on the test booklet or answer sheet is un-numbered, please report immediately to the invigilator and get the test booklet/answer sheet replaced.
(ii) Candidates should note that any omission/mistakes/discrepancy in encoding/filling of details in the OMR answer sheet, especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code, will render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
(iii) Immediately after commencement of the examination please check that the test booklet supplied to you does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc., if so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet of the same series and subject.
7. Do not write your name or anything other than the specific items of information asked for, on the answer sheet/test booklet/sheet for rough work.
8. Do not fold or mutilate or damage or put any extraneous marking in the Answer Sheet. Do not write anything on the reverse of the answer sheet.
9. Since the answer sheets will be evaluated on computerised machines, candidates should exercise due care in handling and filling up the answer sheets. They should use black ball pen only to darken the circles. For writing in boxes, they should use black ball pen. Since the entries made by the candidates by darkening the circles will be taken into account while evaluating the answer sheets on computerised machines, they should make these entries very carefully and accurately.
10. Method of marking answers In the ‘OBJECTIVE TYPE’ of examination, you do not write the answers. For each question (hereinafter referred to as “Item”) several suggested answers (hereinafter referred to as “Responses”) are given. You have to choose one response to each item. The question paper will be in the Form of TEST BOOKLET. The booklet will contain item bearing numbers 1, 2, 3…….etc. Under each item, Responses marked (a), (b), (c), (d) will be given. Your task will be to choose the correct response. If you think there is more than one correct response, then choose what you consider the best response. In any case, for each item you are to select only one response, if you select more than one response, your response will be considered wrong. In the Answer Sheet, Serial Nos. From 1 to 160 are printed. Against each numbers, there are circles marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). After you have read each item in the Test Booklet and decided which one of the given responses is correct or the best. You have to mark your response by completely blackening with black ball pen to indicate your response. For example, if the correct answer to item 1 is (b), then the circle containing the letter (b) is to be completely blackened with black ball pen as shown below :- Example : (a) • (c) (d).
11. Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed the help of a scribe.
12. Entries in Scannable Attendance List. Candidates are required to fill in the relevant particulars with black ball pen only against their columns in the Scannable Attendance List, as given below.
i) Blacken the circle (P) under the column (Present/Absent)
ii) Blacken the relevant circle for Test Booklet Series
iii) Write Test Booklet Serial No.
iv) Write the Answer Sheet Serial No. and also blacken the Corresponding circles below.
v) Append signature in the relevant column.
13. Please read and abide by the instructions on the cover of Test Booklet. If any candidate indulges in disorderly or improper conduct he will render himself liable for disciplinary action and/or imposition of a penalty as the Commission may deem fit.